I.2.10a
2/15/2021
And with it, comes a cute little picture:
Ooo, fancy. As usual, my visualization skills for projective spaces are lackluster to say the least, but this picture
appears to suggest that I can essentially just think of Pn as typical n-dimensional space, with some "infinity points"
added in..... sort of..... kind of.... ANYWAY, let's get on with it.
Note that θ is surjective, so
| (1) |
Showing that C(Y )'s ideal is equal to I(Y ) is asking us to show that I(C(Y )) = I(Y ) (where technically the
first I is taken in affine space and the latter is taken in projective space, but I won't work that into the notation,
cause my skillz have advanced since 2.1)
Consider a homogenous polynomial f. Then...
f | ∈ I(C(Y )) | |||||
⇐⇒∀P ∈ C(Y ) | : f(P) = 0 | |||||
⇐⇒f(0) = 0 and ∀P ∈ θ-1(Y ) | : f(P) = 0 | |||||
⇐⇒∀P ∈ θ-1(Y ) | : f(P) = 0 | (f(0) = 0 is automatic since f is homogenous)..... WAIT. ARE YOU SEEING THIS? I FIGURED OUT A WAY TO FIX THE FUCKING "STICKING OUT" ISSUE HOLY PFUCKING SHIT LET ME FUCKING THROW IN A BUNCH OF TEXT AND ABUSE THIS NEWFOUND TECHNIQUE WOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO (...well I need to break the text more elegantly) | ||||
⇐⇒∀P ∈ θ-1(Y ) | : f(θ(P)) = 0 | (again, by homogeneity of f) | ||||
⇐⇒∀Q ∈ Y | : f(Q) = 0 | (basic set theory: (1)) | ||||
⇐⇒f | ∈ I(Y ) |
∀f ∈ I(C(Y )) | : f(P) = 0 | |||||
∀f ∈ I(C(Y )) ∩ Sh | : f(P) = 0 | |||||
∀f ∈ I(Y ) ∩ Sh | : f(P) = 0 | |||||
∀f ∈ I(Y ) ∩ Sh | : f(θ(P)) = 0 | (f is homogenous) | ||||
θ(P) | ∈ Z(I(Y )) | (Definition of Z in projective space) | ||||
θ(P) | ∈ Y | (Y is algebraic) | ||||
P | ∈ θ-1(Y ) |
| (2) |
(Note that we can exclude i = 0 because 0 ∈ C(Y ), so f can't have any nonzero zero-degree terms)
Note: f ∈ I(C(Y ))
∀P ∈ θ-1(Y ) : f(P) = 0. Consider any random P ∈ θ-1(Y ), so that f(P) = 0.
Note that also cP ∈ θ-1(Y ) for any scalar c ∈ k, which means we'd have to have f(cP) = 0
So....
∑ i=1dfi(cP) | = 0 | ||
fd(cP) + fd-1(cP) + + f1(cP) | = 0 | ||
cdfd(P) + cd-1fd-1(cP) + + cf1(cP) | = 0 | ||
- (cd-1fd-1(cP) + + cf1(cP)) | = cdfd(P) |
| (3) |
Now since P was arbitrary, this applies for any P ∈ θ-1(Y ). But with each fi being homogenous, this means that
| (4) |
which means that by (1) f1,…,fd ∈ I(Y ). But I(Y ) is an ideal, so f = f1 +
+ fd ∈ I(Y ).
Since f was arbitrary, I(C(Y )) ⊂ I(Y )
Dun. Whew. uhhhh, here's where I would spend some time analyzing the figure and talking about the visual
explanation but i'm too tired rn CYA IN PART B.